D
David Higgins
Does specifying a DOCTYPE break browsers, if the HTML within that page
is not valid for that DTD?
Why on earth would I want to do that anyway, you might ask. I have
been writing simple XHTML1.1 valid pages (according to the w3c
validator) with all layout and formatting in the CSS, as I have been
learning is the way to do things now. The problem is, I master a site
which up until now has been made in Frontpage2002. I can feel the
majority of you shifing uneasily in your chairs right now. FP and
valid XHTML?! What was I thinking! The issue is this: I want
form-to-email funtionality, FP makes this very easy to do, and I don't
know any cgi and am reluctant to get into that yet.
So if I make a valid XHTML1.1 page, and then add the FP form code
which produces errors in the validator, am I going to break browsers
because page contains invalid code? Or will it be rendered anyway? How
does this work?
TIA
Dave Higgins
(the site is www.leedscmr.org)
is not valid for that DTD?
Why on earth would I want to do that anyway, you might ask. I have
been writing simple XHTML1.1 valid pages (according to the w3c
validator) with all layout and formatting in the CSS, as I have been
learning is the way to do things now. The problem is, I master a site
which up until now has been made in Frontpage2002. I can feel the
majority of you shifing uneasily in your chairs right now. FP and
valid XHTML?! What was I thinking! The issue is this: I want
form-to-email funtionality, FP makes this very easy to do, and I don't
know any cgi and am reluctant to get into that yet.
So if I make a valid XHTML1.1 page, and then add the FP form code
which produces errors in the validator, am I going to break browsers
because page contains invalid code? Or will it be rendered anyway? How
does this work?
TIA
Dave Higgins
(the site is www.leedscmr.org)