Why choose a paragraph element for a paragraph?

B

Brian

Why should a *practical* website maker choose a paragraph element for a
paragraph?

As far as I can work out, for no *other* reason than that the P element
is associated in browsers with ready made styles that humans can
recognise as indicating a paragraph. So it saves bother! Easier than
fashioning styles for a DIV.

Much easier to trim a hedge than grow one in the first place. And pretty
well the same thing goes for all other elements.

Imagining that the paragraph as it exists in the HTML is somehow free of
presentation is like imagining walking out of the house nude knowing the
door is rigged to trigger clothes to magically cover your loveliness.

"I'm going to walk out nude" is not very brave under these
circumstances.
The end of a paragraph is the place where my wife can interrupt me.

No, wait: she doesn't need paragraphs...

Brian
 
D

dorayme

Brian <[email protected]> said:
....

The end of a paragraph is the place where my wife can interrupt me.
Now that is not a bad way of identifying a paragraph! If it is not what
I have said it is, and is instead some weirdo abstract spooky beast,
then the causal effects on wives is an option as a criterion.
No, wait: she doesn't need paragraphs...
If you notice carefully, there is probably a difference in the *way* she
interrupts you at different times. There are probably sentence, comma,
paragraph interrupting ways. In my case I have noticed that I am
interrupted as I go to speak. This, I suppose is the causal effect of
nothing and as such, is very interesting to me. Perhaps the proposition
that the world had a cause and the theory of the Big Bang are not
incompatible after all...
 
D

dorayme

Ben C said:
It's only a paradox if you had previously tried to convince yourself
that the meaning of a name was its bearer.
People perhaps used to do this rather effortlessly before the turn of
the 19th into the 20th centuries.

All sorts of people are confused about identity. It was almost gospel,
to take a notorious example, until the 1970s that the mind could not be
the brain. First year philosophy students were regularly taught to
dispatch the idea that these two things could be one and the same. It
was considered a logical or conceptual mistake. The perpetrators of this
disservice to anti-dualist thinking are never quite silenced but they
took a big hit when the distinction I have been describing became better
known to them. The scale of the trouble caused by a failure to
appreciate this distinction is big indeed.
OK, but what kinds of names/descriptions/processes have or need
references? And why?

Not sure what you are asking. I have given examples of phrases that have
references. And I have generally extended the idea for this thread into
all elements of sentences that point to features in the non-linguistic
world.

What use would it be for the detective to say

1. The man going into the flat where the blonde lives is your husband

if the various bits did not have references. You are welcome to use
"referents". The words are not important. What is important is that
things in the real world are being pointed to. It is a basic feature of
our using language. To pick out things in the world to say things about
them. To pick things out and say what the real relations between them
(non-linguistic relations) are.

When we start talking about causal relations, there must be something
about the world that makes one thing cause another. If it is not some
gluey spooky thing then it is something more complicated about how the
world really is. Scientists can tell us a great deal about these things.
But when the scientists are done, there are a few questions still. Hume
had some. Many of us have some. It is shear human curiosity to ask
questions. All I can tell you is that a great deal of confusion can
result from not distinguishing meaning from reference. I am not saying
that you cannot look into this distinction more closely.
"There are no blond women in the flat". Which women are you talking
about here exactly? What does "blond women" refer to?

(Let me guess, the blond women in the flat in all the other possible
worlds in which there _are_ blond women in the flat!)

No, no... <g>. No particular women are being identified here.

2. There are no blond women in the flat

is saying that there is a particular flat (note the 'the') about which
it is not true that it has a certain characteristic. It could as well be
"has no working toilet".
Or we could just say: it's obvious the sentence does refer to the flat,
but not to any women. So asking which women these are who aren't in the
flat is simply a question that doesn't make sense.
....


Yes you do need to know what is being referred to. But if I say "A
causes B" and you know what A and B refer to, is there anything else for
which you need to know what it refers to?

If you are curious like Hume and many of us, yes! We want to know what,
outside our sentences and our minds, is the causal bit about.
"I pull the lever and that causes the brake to come on". "Which
lever?"-- that one. "What brake?"-- that drum brake over there, at the
back of the car. These questions make sense and are concerned with
resolving references.

"OK so I know you mean this lever and that brake. But what's this causal
nexus you are talking about here?".

It's difficult to make much sense of this question, but I suppose I
could try answering, "the cable". "No, I don't mean the cable, I don't
mean the little As and Bs between the lever and the drum, that's a
matter for scientists. I mean what are you referring to, besides the
lever and the brake and the cable, when you say pulling the lever causes
the brake to come on? And don't just tell me what 'causes' means! Of
course I know that!"

I cannot make any sense of this question at all. How is it any less
nonsense than asking who are these women who aren't in the flat?

I did try to formulate the query that remains when the scientists have
finished their jobs when I asked about "What is common to A causes B for
all the many different values that fill these variables?" and went on to
summarise a few answers, including Hume's
Is it patent nonsense yet? (Wittgenstein: "my aim is: to teach you to
pass from a piece of disguised nonsense to something that is patent
nonsense").


Yes, the cause must exist out there in the real world for the statement
to be true.

But isn't that a question of correspondence rather than of reference?
I'm thinking of correspondence as a property of a whole statement, and
reference as a property of a term in a sentence.

We can step back at any time here and get less complex. What is a causal
relation in the world? What more is it than something going with
something else? Hume found nothing. I think a complicated story needs to
be told that makes Hume anything but actually right. Lewis tells a
story. Someone can choose not to tell stories but then how is this
different from either a lack of curiosity or a view of the primitiveness
of the causal relation (a bit like, what is it for something to *exist*
- on this I happen not to be further curious because I know nothing
clearer than this with which to investigate it.)

[...]
I would like to see how someone can understand causal statements without
readily understanding some simple counterfactuals.

I didn't say they couldn't. I was just trying to make sense of the idea
that counterfactuals are part of the very meaning of causation.
No, you are saying that bachelors are unmarried. Not trying to be funny
here, you are not defining anything.

Under what other circumstances would anyone ever use that sentence?

3. All bachelors are unmarried

Although, no matter what the circumstances, it is not asserting a
definition, I am not disputing that one might use it as an example in an
English language class. It is used often by philosophers as an example
of something true in order to discuss what makes it true and how it is
to be distinguished from many other types of sentences. Philosophers are
particularly nosey about necessity, both in maths and elsewhere.

You seem to think 3. is something a bit useless. No doubt you are right
in this particular case. But what if there are interesting necessary
statements? Maths. Other things. It is an open question how analytic
these are. It is indeed an open question what quite is the distinction
between analytic and synthetic and how these categories cut across the
necessary/contingent one.

But we are not talking these things so why are they being discussed
here? We are talking causal truths. The answer to your questions about
such analytic truths, supposing we had some detailed ones, might turn
out not to be relevant to what we are discussing.

What can I say that I have not already said? Everything important is
what is left. We can talk till the cows come home about meaning. But in
the end, there are questions about the world itself. Hume, I keep
mentioning him because you have a familiarity with him, was interested
in more than the meaning of words. I think this is a fine tradition and
however I admire Wittgentein, I do not think like his disciples thought,
that philosophy is about clearing up conceptual confusions by attending
to our language.
But that is an analysis of grammar-- of how we use the word "causes"--
not of the nature of the world.
Why would you say or think this? What is common between two things in
the world outside language is in the world outside language, it is not
something in language. And most certainly is not to do with just grammar.

I am not disputing that sentences are true because of both the meanings
of the words and the way the world is. But we do make a distinction. And
causal relations between matches and fire are not part of our language,
they are part of the world outside language.
[...]
Well, I would be very surprised if true sentences did not correspond to
or represent aspects of the world. You are right to raise this and I
will admit that hardly any part of philosophy is unconnected with all
the other parts.

I'm happy to say that "A causes B" corresponds to a state of affairs in
the world if it is true.

But I don't see why we need to say that the world has a nature in
respect to causation or that we are referring to that nature when we
state a cause.
If you don't agree that the world does not have a nature in respect of A
causing B, then how is this different to denying that A caused B?

4. A caused B

is true because something in the world makes it true and it ain't that A
and B are hanging around looking pretty. And, not believing Hume, I
think it is something more than that B follows A.

It is easy to suppose that if you are not happy with what scientists say
about A and B and ask further questions, you must be asking about
meaning or grammar or concepts. But this is a deep mistake and a bad
legacy from Wittgenstein later writings.

The answer to these concerns about causality lies in more than mere
meaning or grammar, it lies in a good look at human theory building and
human representation of the world and ultimately what the best theory
about the world is.

Isn't that the whole reason you brought up the distinction between
meaning and reference in the first place? So that we can resolve
paradoxes by showing that name-like phrases don't always have to be used
to refer to anything?

I would not have said so. I am quite happy to discuss only those
sentences that never fail to have references. Look at 4 above. I am
saying we get nowhere by peering closely at the meaning of the phrases
to identify A or B and we get no real knowledge by asking what do we
mean (English mean) by "caused". What we do get by the latter is further
semantic equivalences. I have argued that the counterfactuals are
crucial in this. That is the meaning part done. The rest is about the
references, about the world out there. The counterfactual version of the
meaning obviously sets the stage for a theory about what is out there
that has tempted the other worlds hypothesis.

I concede that the world out there might include features about human
theory building activities but this something, by no stretch of the
imagination, can be called examining the meaning of our English words.

In most sentences causal nexus don't even look like name-like phrases
anyway.

[...]
Well, this looks wrong to me. What you call formalization, if you are
thinking of the analysis of counterfactuality, never mind causality
for now, never mind necessary statements, is fleshing out details and
overcoming intricate objections to a clear program and question. What
makes a counterfactual true? It is not the truth of the antecedent,
nor of the consequent. So what is it outside human minds that makes it
true? And his answer is the worlds that exist outside human minds.

The purpose of this exertion seems to be to preserve the formalism: we
want all true statements to be made true by things in worlds. So we
invent more worlds.

Formalism? He goes into things. He tries to be as rigorous as possible.
We have not been discussing modal logic here.
I'm not saying it's not an ingenious solution, just that you have to ask
what problem it is a solution to.

Why do all true statements have to be made true by things in worlds in
the first place?
It would be a funny thing if something alleged to be true about the
world turned out to be true but nothing in the world made it true. That
is not something I can imagine even as magic.

And his answer is the worlds that exist outside human minds. He
believed in them, they were not idle speculations for him. Might seem
curious to some folk. But intelligent folk do believe in things others
find extraordinary.

Indeed. Hume had the same problem:

"I am first affrighted and confounded with that forelorn solitude,
in which I am placed in my philosophy, and fancy myself some strange
uncouth monster, who not being able to mingle and unite in society,
has been expelled all human commerce, and left utterly abandoned and
disconsolate. Fain would I run into the crowd for shelter and
warmth; but cannot prevail with myself to mix with such deformity. I
call upon others to join me, in order to make a company apart; but
no one will hearken to me. Every one keeps at a distance, and dreads
that storm, which beats upon me from every side. [...]"

That is a nice quote! I wonder how many of us have felt a bit this way?
<g>
 
J

Jan Faerber

Division into chunks, in some sense, has always been an integral part of how
we use language, from the dawn of language - for all that we can now.

And the climax is Power Point?


Sorry - no cynical comment. Just came to my mind.
I know ... Rosetta Stone and roman steles - there was not much space
on it.
 
D

dorayme

Ben C said:
Ben C said:
On 2009-03-25, dorayme <[email protected]> wrote:
[...]
....

"A causes B".

A and B point to things in the world. Why does "causes" have to? Why
can't it just be a certain characteristic of the events A and B?

As I said, I can just about make sense of "causes" in this sentence
referring to the cable or mechanism or something.

Why does it have to refer to anything else besides that? How do I tell
in general which words have to refer to things?

"A is bigger than B"

Does "bigger" refer to something? A's size? Or some kind of ontological
bigness?

I am happy to agree that names and definite descriptions refer to things
in many of the true sentences with which we have been dealing. And happy
to say that what is said *about* these things do not point to *objects*
in the world but are simply characteristics of the objects pointed to by
the names and definite descriptions. What is said about objects can be
simple or complex, from "is 4-ft long" to "is midway between Saturn and
Neptune" to... you name it.

It is still the case that one can describe, for the purpose of
reference, an object in causal terms:

1. The cause of the carnage was the bomb placed under the chassis by Mr
X.

Something - the cause of the carnage - is being 'definitely described'
here. This is a technical term meaning it is a phrase that acts rather
like a name with assumptions or pretensions to be picking out some
unique thing in the world, yes, an object, a thing, as in "The man going
into that flat" in

2. The man going into that flat was your husband

And it - The cause of the carnage - is being claimed to be identical
with something else - the bomb placed under the chassis by Mr X - that
is being definitely described also. An identity statement. The very sort
that I used in describing the distinction between sense and reference.

The terms have a sense and they have a reference. I have been urging
that we are okay with the sense. No huge problem here. That is English,
that is meaning, that is the language, that is how we speak and how we
use words. Fine. The really interesting question is what is being picked
out in the non-linguistic world. In the case of the description in 2.
there is no immediate problem. The detective knows what he saw, simple
as that. He knows what sort of thing walked into the blonde's flat, he
knows it was just one man, he noted the time. His definite description
is fashioned in a particular context, it can be filled out a little
more, but it is pretty clear in its meaning or sense. And we are not
having trouble understanding how it can have a reference (call it a
referent if you want) here.

But in the case of 1, there is a sticky problem and it is not different
to the one Hume discussed when all is said and done. Questions arise
about how such a thing in the world is to be identified in such terms
('the cause of the carnage'). How is such a thing to be distinguished
from the bomb itself? Some people would say, by it being true that if
the bomb had not been clamped under the chassis (e.g.. had it been
clamped under a different car in a different street), the reference
would then fail.

I trust we can deal with all quibbles. And, yes, we are going in
circles. But that is the nature of this game. I keep coming back to
counterfactuals because I was not kidding when I said it is pretty hard
to understand causality without using them.
Surely something in the world makes A bigger than B! It can't just be
true in people's minds.
Exactly! For one moment I had to come to realise that you are saying
this and not me! This is what I am saying about the causal relation,
something in the world seems to be needed to make it true. I have been
asking what that might be. I have been keenly putting it every which way
I can think of to you. And while we have journeyed here and there, the
question still remains. What in the world outside of language and us is
cause.

Perhaps nothing! Perhaps, indeed, we need to look not to spooky causal
glue, not to counterfactual worlds, not to complicated stories about
possibilities in combinations of universals in this world, but to us and
our minds?

It is interesting that you should put the point about 'in the mind'.
There was a famous philosopher who thought we brought big frameworks to
the world from our minds - space, time, causality. I did hint at this
when I said a story might need to be told in terms of human theory
building. It may well turn out that there is nothing we can ever really
settle on to identify as a truth-maker in the world to ground the
relations we claim in our sentences. It may be a complicated story about
how our minds need to organise our experiences in this way.
[...]
What can I say that I have not already said? Everything important is
what is left. We can talk till the cows come home about meaning. But in
the end, there are questions about the world itself. Hume, I keep
mentioning him because you have a familiarity with him, was interested
in more than the meaning of words. I think this is a fine tradition and
however I admire Wittgenstein, I do not think like his disciples thought,
that philosophy is about clearing up conceptual confusions by attending
to our language.

Conceptual confusions do exist and it is well worth clearing them up and
keeping an eye out for them.

I would be the last to deny this. But I do not have a picture of
philosophy as some sort of muddle clearing house. I am old fashioned and
believe in metaphysics.
 
D

dorayme

Ben C said:
.....
All sorts of people are confused about identity. It was almost gospel,
to take a notorious example, until the 1970s that the mind could not be
the brain. First year philosophy students were regularly taught to
dispatch the idea that these two things could be one and the same. It
was considered a logical or conceptual mistake. The perpetrators of this
disservice to anti-dualist thinking are never quite silenced but they
took a big hit when the distinction I have been describing became better
known to them. The scale of the trouble caused by a failure to
appreciate this distinction is big indeed.

So would you say something like that mind is meaning and brain is
reference?
I would not, no.

To some extent the idea of mind is heavily theory laden and to the
extent that some of these theories are wrong or worse, I would say we do
not, in fact, have minds. But, of course, we do! In other words, there
is something hard and sensible in our thinking from the last few
thousand years.

Capturing this harder more sensible thing: Our minds are things. They
are things that have mental states. We are pretty sure we have minds.

Now, things do not have meaning. Words and phrases and linguistic
objects do. Our brains are things. The idea of the contingent identity
theory is that minds and brains are in fact the same thing. The
reference of the phrase "X's mind" is something in the world. So too is
the reference of "X's brain" There are not too references (feel free to
use 'referent'). The claim is that there is just one. The sense or
meaning of the terms are different. Remember:

1. The man going into the flat above at 2 am was your husband.

The meaning of "The man going into the flat above at 2 am" is different
to the meaning of "your husband". But they both refer, if the detective
is right, to one and the same thing.

Neither 1. nor

2. Mr X's mind is Mr X's brain

is a necessary truth.
[...]
When we start talking about causal relations, there must be something
about the world that makes one thing cause another.

Yes, but that's the cable, the gunpowder, the forces etc. (And much
deeper things in physics that haven't been thought of yet-- I don't mean
to say this isn't an interesting question).

We keep going round in circles here. I can try to imagine this third
thing beyond the meaning and the science, but I can't see what it is.

I do sympathise with you saying that we should look to science to
explain how things cause other things. But suppose we stop at what they
tell us and go home. Don't you realise what that would mean? It would
mean Ed and others would breath far too big a sigh of relief at this
thread! <g>

Seriously, don't you think there is *any* question left to ask about
cause after the scientists have their say? What about Hume's questions?
What about the question about what makes a counterfactual true?

A scientist is quite likely to say when we probe a bit, at one point:

2. Well, er... had Mr X not smoked, he would be alive today

And we might say to him, "mmm... what do you know about what what would
have happened to him if he had not smoked? Have you got him not smoking
in your lab somewhere and not dying?"

"Well", the scientist says, "we have observed people like him that do
not smoke and don't die at his age".

"But that is not Mr X! We are talking about Mr X and why *he* died, not
people *like him*...", we might protest.

You can see how things can deteriorate quickly. There will be
inquisitive folk (like Hume) who will comment acidly on the matter. They
will see the scientist as telling us about the observed regularities.
And they will ask if that is all it is. Some will say yes, that is it.
There is no more to A causes B than B regularly being observed to follow
A. Or some such thing.

I think, if we are curious, we can do very much better.
[...]
Lewis tells a story. Someone can choose not to tell stories but then
how is this different from either a lack of curiosity or a view of the
primitiveness of the causal relation (a bit like, what is it for
something to *exist* - on this I happen not to be further curious
because I know nothing clearer than this with which to investigate
it.)

OK, but it just as much lacks curiosity not to ask what exactly the
story is supposed to be showing.

The story is supposed to identify a truth maker for counterfactual
statements. No one else seemed to be doing the job well up to the point
he offered his theory.
I really am having difficulty seeing anything here beside science
and grammar.

I am trying my best in the format that usenet allows! said:
What is missing from my picture? Why doesn't it work?

Well, some feel the need to identify in some way what makes a
counterfactual true. You agree that that they can be true but seem
unmoved by the idea that something in the world makes them true. You
seem comfortable with less metaphysical theory and others are thirsty
for more and better.

I would settle for some account of why we are barking up the wrong tree
here. Maybe there is a Kantian sort of story to be told about humans
bringing causality in as a framework and imposing it. But imposing it on
what? A series of regularities that are truly out there.

This idea rather depresses me! It speaks of a race locked in a mental
prison where there is no real escape.

[...]
It would be a funny thing if something alleged to be true about the
world turned out to be true but nothing in the world made it true. That
is not something I can imagine even as magic.

My question was very badly phrased. Yes, of course a true statement
about the world is made true by the world in some way.

But it might be unnecessary to be too systematic about the
correspondence. Consider a typically problematic statement like: "if I
had got there earlier I would have read the newspaper". We could worry
about whether this refers to the past or the present, or possible
worlds, etc..

But why can't we just say, "I", "there", "newspaper" refer to things,
but nothing much else does in that sentence. And if anyone asks we're
talking about the world. What's wrong with that? What is really missing?

At least for the reason that you are saying something in addition to
picking out objects

3. If I had got there earlier I would have read the newspaper.

makes *a claim about* these undoubted things, you, earlier times and
newspapers.
 
D

dorayme

....
Science doesn't stop. My vision of the future here is that we may one
day have reasons from theoretical physics to change the way we think
about causation, just as we have done for space and time.

Much wisdom in that. Let us set curiosity about metaphysical questions
aside and await the future. <g>

....
 
D

dorayme

Ben C said:
....
1. The cause of the carnage was the bomb placed under the chassis by Mr
X.

Something - the cause of the carnage - is being 'definitely described'
here. This is a technical term meaning it is a phrase that acts rather
like a name with assumptions or pretensions to be picking out some
unique thing in the world, yes, an object, a thing, as in "The man going
into that flat" in

2. The man going into that flat was your husband

And it - The cause of the carnage - is being claimed to be identical
with something else - the bomb placed under the chassis by Mr X - that
is being definitely described also. An identity statement. The very sort
that I used in describing the distinction between sense and reference.

The terms have a sense and they have a reference. I have been urging
that we are okay with the sense. No huge problem here. That is English,
that is meaning, that is the language, that is how we speak and how we
use words. Fine. The really interesting question is what is being picked
out in the non-linguistic world. In the case of the description in 2.
there is no immediate problem. The detective knows what he saw, simple
as that. He knows what sort of thing walked into the blonde's flat, he
knows it was just one man, he noted the time. His definite description
is fashioned in a particular context, it can be filled out a little
more, but it is pretty clear in its meaning or sense. And we are not
having trouble understanding how it can have a reference (call it a
referent if you want) here.

But in the case of 1, there is a sticky problem and it is not different
to the one Hume discussed when all is said and done. Questions arise
about how such a thing in the world is to be identified in such terms
('the cause of the carnage'). How is such a thing to be distinguished
from the bomb itself?

We could distinguish it according to meaning, but in terms of reference,
can't we just say that it does refer to the bomb?

We can indeed say this. Just as we can say 'The man going into that
flat' refers to 'your husband' in 2 above. The reference of both are
one and the same. The reference of 'The cause...' in 1. is the same as
'the bomb placed under the chassis...'

There is no trouble about this in the sense of picking out the object.
The trouble comes in what it is about the object and its relations in
the world outside us that makes it a cause, ultimately what in the world
could account for the identity statement being true.
"The woman in the flat", "The blond-haired person who got off the bus
four minutes ago". They refer to the same woman (as it happens, let's
say), but the descriptions have different meanings.

"The bomb", "the cause of the carnage": different meanings, same
reference? I'm just trying to follow your rule.
You are correct.


Yes it fails, but why?
It fails for the same reason that

3. The King Of France is bald

fails in its reference. There is no such monarch and in the situation we
are *envisaging* there is no bomb clamped under your car.
"The woman in the flat". Suppose I said, what if she wasn't in the flat
in the ordinary sense, but was actually outside it. Then the reference
would fail.
the sense of the words in the example was about the flat itself owned
and generally occupied by the blonde woman, do we need to go into
whether she was actually in the flat when he went in? Maybe she nicked
out to get a nice cake?
Did it fail because I changed the meaning of "in", or because I made
"in" refer to something other than "inness"?-- that well-known real
quality of the world that makes one thing be in another.

We are talking cases where there is no failure to refer in fact. The
sticky wicket about the causal statement is that it seems to involve
counterfactuals. What would have happened had some things not been the
way they were?
 
D

dorayme

Ben C said:
So "the cause of the carnage" just refers to the bomb, not to some
metaphysical true nature of causation.

'the cause of the carnage' is an attempt at reference. If it succeeds,
it picks out the cause of the carnage. If the cause happens to be the
bomb, the reference will be the bomb.

Your "just" is slightly misplaced or misleading. If the detective tells
his client that her husband is not only the man that entered the blonde
woman's flat but that he is "just the man that 3 years ago had been
caught climbing through the window of a neighbour of his estranged
father and stealing 14 rare stamps", there is no *just* about it.

Descriptions carry a conceptual load that is separate from mere
reference. And it is not mere meaning. The meaning of the words is one
thing. The implications are another. The implications of the referring
phrase tell of a bigger story than the mere reference to the featherless
biped that walked into that blonde's flat.

So too of the phrase 'the cause'. It is conceptually rich. There is no
*just* about it.

It is this richness, these implications about the world that is the real
subject of curiosity.
Right, so it fails to refer to the bomb. This still doesn't show that
"the cause of the carnage" referred to anything except the bomb.

OK. Let's sort out an issue here. The above comes from my:

"1. The cause of the carnage was the bomb placed under the chassis by Mr
X.

....

"... in the case of 1, there is a sticky problem and it is not different
to the one Hume discussed when all is said and done. Questions arise
about how such a thing in the world is to be identified in such terms
('the cause of the carnage'). How is such a thing to be distinguished
from the bomb itself? Some people would say, by it being true that if
the bomb had not been clamped under the chassis (e.g.. had it been
clamped under a different car in a different street), the reference
would then fail."

I was referring here to the envisaged counterfactual situation in
respect to 'the bomb placed under the chassis by Mr X' and not to 'cause
of the carnage'.

If I say:

1. The cause of the carnage is the bomb made by Mr X.

and it happens that Mr X put this bomb quite elsewhere, the reference of
'cause of the carnage' does not fail. In fact it cannot fail in this
world of ours. There would have been a cause for the carnage. It is just
that it is not identical to the bomb we are talking about.

However, if it was the bomb we are talking about that did cause the
carnage then the cause is the bomb.

....

....
OK, but does that make it more deserving of reference than bigness or
inness?

On this distinction between meaning and reference, I am starting to feel
a bit guilty at possibly misleading you? Perhaps I should have been more
careful in how I introduced it or what I said about it?

It is an important distinction generally to keep in mind and illustrates
how we must watch out for when we are talking about language itself
somehow and when about the world apart from language. It crops up all
the time when looking at various statements. It comes up, as we have
seen, in various causal statements. But I am not meaning to say that
whenever the word "cause" occurs in a sentence about the world, there is
some object or simple feature that it must match in some simple
referential way.

In one sense, I wanted to show you this distinction to illustrate the
simple point that we can be happy about the meaning of our words without
necessarily knowing what some phrases actually refer to. That meaning
was something we learn with the language, but reference is the
particular interest of scientists and philosophers (other than those
unduly influenced by the later Wittgenstein).

The puzzle about cause is to think what more than mere regularity a la
Hume could be involved. You say you trust to science in the future for
an answer.

Perhaps we will look at all this stuff in a very different way when we
know more about how evolved creatures like us can represent the world
outside their brains.

In the meantime, we do the best we can. And it does seem that causal
statements involve the truth of counterfactuals. And so an account of
how counterfactuals can be true is something that anyone keen on this
issue needs to address.
 
D

dorayme

....
It seems I'm meant to let something of the distinction between meaning
and reference rub off onto the idea of causation, in order to better
imagine the way in which it must be underpinned by something real
because of its conceptual richness [1].

You put it very well!

This idea of conceptual richness is something I have only introduced in
the last post or so in order to answer a couple of things you said.
Allow me to make it more transparent. It is nothing spooky. I mean only
refer to assumptions built into definite descriptions.

Take the definite description in:

1. The man who broke into his father's stamp-collecting neighbour's
house in 1999 is your husband.

I have said how the meaning of 'The man who broke into his father's
stamp-collecting neighbour's house in 1999' is one thing and the
reference is another in the technical sense that English speakers know
how to use the long phrase repeatedly, in other sentences and to refer
to other men in the world or even to fail to refer to anyone. The
*reference*, however, is simply the thing in the world picked out.

However if you look at the definite description 'The man who broke into
his father's stamp-collecting neighbour's house in 1999' it cannot
escape notice that there are assumptions lying behind the use of it.
Assumptions about how the world is. One assumption is that there is a
father to the reference (use 'referent' if you feel more comfortable),
this father has a neighbour, this neighbour collects stamps, the
collection is partly at least in the neighbour's house and so on. These
assumptions are not being asserted in 1. They lie behind 1, as it were.

Sure, 'The man who broke into his father's stamp-collecting neighbour's
house in 1999' has a meaning and is intended in 1. to refer to a
specific thing. But coming along for the ride is a whole lot of other
assumptions, all of which need to be true (more or less true, there are
some esoteric exceptions, but let's keep it simple).

These assumptions are important. If they are not the least bit true,
then the main business of successfully referring cannot get going. Now
this applies to the idea of cause in the following way:

2. The cause of the carnage was the bomb made by Mr. X

speaks of a cause, it speaks of a specific cause, it refers but it
carries the assumption that there is something of specific character
here in the world.

Now I would say that this character is something to do with an
assumption that had there *not* been some important thing in the
situation that was in fact in the situation, the carnage would not have
occurred.

Hello, here is that counterfactual popping up again! Every time I do
this, you run out on to the road and stick up a big STOP sign. I wait
patiently, the engine running, for you to let me pass. But you keep
popping up at other points of my travel... <g>

So, we come to Lewis and your below...
One of the insights of Wittgenstein is that it is possible to imagine
things that are senseless. Isn't that what I'm being invited to do here?
You described what Lewis is doing yourself as telling a story.

Lewis tried to answer the question 'What makes a counterfactual true?'.
He posits worlds in which there *are* ways that are different to our
world and this provides the 'categorical' (if you like) truth-maker. You
are not alone in thinking this story he tells is unconvincing. He was
alone, the poor guy, in thinking it. I have almost infinite respect for
him. It was not a game. He was honestly asking questions and following
leads as best and as honestly and bravely as he could. What Wittgenstein
said needs to be taken with large grains of salt.

Even if I can make no sense of it, perhaps you do understand what this
is a picture of, or what the story means. Or perhaps it doesn't matter
and one is just meant to enjoy the picture.

[1] cf ontological arguments-- if causation is conceptually rich, how
much more so is the concept of God? Something to think about anyway.

Well, the ontological argument, depending on the version you mean, is a
faulty argument and faulty for reasons I cannot see as relevant here.
But I do see one thing, statements about a god carry all sorts of
assumptions. And when you examine these assumptions, you get some pretty
unbelievable, preposterous stuff. I trust that causation fares better.

Remember that we can get by easily without assertions about gods. But we
cannot get by without counterfactuals. They are part of every thought
about ways the world could have been different. Not least when
reflecting on our own behaviour.
 
J

Jan Faerber

[QUOTE="Ed Mullen said:
Why should a *practical* website maker choose a paragraph element for a
paragraph?
I hate this thread.  I hate this thread.  I hate this thread.
There!  I feel much better now!

O believe me Ed, do I know this! With my antennae, I sense glowering
eyes, murmurings and rumblings among the senators, plans set for some
sort of Ides of March.  

May I recommend a filter for you - just for the thread mind you - unless
you are secretly fascinated by the spectacle. It takes courage Ed, but
you can do it.

However, be warned Ed, I have a FREE and UNCONDITIONAL OFFER planned for
later where you could be the LUCKY WINNER of a ROUND TRIP OF THE EARTH
AND MORE for you and your family, all 5 STAR. You would MISS OUT.
[/QUOTE]

I still don't know if I should install Vista Business, Windows 2000
or Debian, SuSe & Co.

All I do in the last few days is to install Win - Lux - Win - Linux -
Win - Linux

For Apple cross me out.

I just don't know what to do.

I could sell shit in little boxes.
 
D

dorayme

Ben C said:
...
It seems I'm meant to let something of the distinction between meaning
and reference rub off onto the idea of causation, in order to better
imagine the way in which it must be underpinned by something real
because of its conceptual richness [1].

You put it very well!

The only problem is I was being ironic-- in the sense of "I'm meant to
do that?!"
That was not a problem to me. I appreciated it. said:
We seem to have reached the point where you use a given sentence to mean
"it is like this" and I use exactly the same words to mean "can't you
see it's nonsense?". One could not hope for a better resolution to an
argument.

Indeed! Your summing up reminds me a bit of my image of you constantly
jumping out with a stop sign as I try to get ahead on some road or
other. Perhaps the road is just a giant loop anyway... said:
You're right we're on different sides of a fence. Seems I may have taken
a "linguistic turn" a while back.

Yes, I can see.
You may find this interesting: http://tinyurl.com/co332z

Very biased of course, but lots about the history I didn't know, and
full of glimpses of the strange and wonderful things on the other side
of the fence (which I still don't believe in by the way :).

These are large issues. I greatly disagree with him and his
understanding of the modern era after Wittgenstein and Strawson.

Anyway, if you ever get suddenly outraged by some claim or other made in
this thread, or have any further thoughts, you are most welcome to air
them.
 

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